ACS General Chemistry II Practice Exam

ACS General Chemistry II Practice Exam

The ACS General Chemistry II Practice Exam provides a comprehensive review of essential chemistry concepts for students preparing for the ACS examination. It includes multiple-choice questions covering topics such as acid-base chemistry, thermodynamics, and chemical kinetics. This exam is designed for undergraduate chemistry students looking to solidify their understanding and improve their test-taking skills. With a variety of problems, it serves as an effective study tool for exam preparation and reinforces key principles in general chemistry.

Key Points

  • Includes multiple-choice questions on acid-base chemistry and thermodynamics.
  • Covers essential topics for ACS General Chemistry II exam preparation.
  • Designed for undergraduate chemistry students to enhance test-taking skills.
  • Provides a comprehensive review of key chemistry concepts and principles.
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General Chemistry II Sample Test bank Page 1of 18
1. According to the Bronsted—Lowry definition,
which chemical species can function both as an
acid and as a base?
a. Cl
—
b. SO
4
2—
c. NH
4
+
d. HCO
3
—
e. H
3
O
+
2. In the reaction CN
—
+ H
2
O !" HCN + OH
—
which is an acid—base conjugate pair?
a. H
2
O and HCN
b. H
2
O and OH
—
c. CN
—
and H
2
O
d. HCN and OH
—
3. Given that HX is a stronger Bronsted acid than
HY in aqueous solution, which is true of a 1 M
solution of NaX
a. It is less basic than a 1 M solution of NaY.
b. It is more basic than a 1 M solution of NaY.
c. It yields a neutral solution.
d. It is more concentrated than a 1 M solution
of NaY.
4. The pH of a 0.03 M HCl solution is
a. 1.5
b. 2.5
c. 3.5
d. 12.5
5. The pH of a 1.0 x 10
—3
M Ba(OH)
2
solution at
25
o
C is
a. 2.7
b. 3.0
c. 11.0
d. 11.3
6. Which is the strongest acid?
a. HClO
b. HClO
2
c. HClO
3
d. HClO
4
7. Which salt reacts with water (hydrolyzes) to
produce a basic solution?
a. NaC
2
H
3
O
2
b. NaNO
3
c. NH
4
Cl
d. BaSO
4
8. The weakest of the bases listed is
Acid Conjugate
Base
Ka (Ionization
Constant of Acid)
HCl Cl
—
100% ionized
HSO
4
—
SO
4
2—
1.2 x 10
-2
H
2
S HS
—
5.7x10
-8
HS
—
S
2—
1.2x10
-13
a. Cl
—
b. CN
—
c. HS
—
d. S
2—
e. SO
4
2—
9. The oxide of which element will react with water
to form the strongest acid?
Main Groups
Period I II II
I
IV V VI VII O
First
Second X Y Z P Q S U
Third W R T M
a. W
b. M
c. P
d. R
e. Z
10. Which statement is a logical inference from
the fact that a 0.10 M solution of potassium
acetate KC
2
H
3
O
2
, is less alkaline than a 0.10 M
solution of potassium cyanide, KCN?
a. Hydrocyanic acid is a weaker acid than
acetic acid.
b. Hydrocyanic acid is less soluble in water
than acetic acid.
c. Cyanides are less soluble than acetates
d. Acetic acid is a weaker acid than
hydrocyanic acid
11. In the titration of 50.0 mL of 0.100 M
benzoic acid (a monoprotic acid) with 50.0 mL of
0.100 M NaOH, the properties of the solution at
the equivalence point will correspond exactly to
the properties of
a. a 0.100 M sodium solution.
b. a 0.0500 M sodium hydroxide solution.
c. a 0.0500 M benzoic acid solution.
d. a 0.0500 M sodium benzoate solution.
General Chemistry II Sample Test bank Page 2of 18
12. A mixture of which pair of 0.1 M aqueous
solutions would constitute a buffer?
a. NaOH and NaCl
b. HCl and NaOH
c. HCl and NaCl
d. NH
3
and NH
4
NO
3
13. What do these have in common?
20
Ne
19
F
1-
24
Mg
2+
a. the same number of protons
b. the same number of neutrons
c. the same number of electrons
d. the same size
14. The number of neutrons in the nucleus of
an atom of
13
27
Al is
a. 40
b. 13
c. 27
d. 14
e. 9
15. The orbitals of 2p electrons are often
represented as being
a. elliptical.
b. Pyramidal
c. Tetrahedral
d. dumbbell shaped
e. spherical.
16. The element in Period 5, Group 3A, has the
outer electron configuration
a. 5s
2
5p
1
b. 3s
2
3p
5
c. 3s
2
3p
3
d. 5s
2
5p
3
17. Which electron configuration is
impossible?
a. 1s
2
2s
2
2p
6
3s
2
b. 1s
2
2s
2
2p
6
3s
2
3p
6
c. 1s
2
2s
2
2p
6
2d
2
d. 1s
2
2s
2
2p
5
3s
1
18. The element X occurs naturally to the
extent of 20.0%
12
X and 80.0%
13
X. The atomic
mass of X is nearest
a. 12.2
b. 12.5
c. 12.8
d. 13.0
19. Which electron transition is associated with
the largest emission of energy?
a. n=2 to n=1
b. n=2 to n=4
c. n=2 to n=3
d. n=3 to n=2
20. If an electron moves from one energy level
in an atom to another energy level more remote
from the nucleus of the same atom
a. energy is absorbed.
b. energy is liberated.
c. there is no energy change.
d. the atom must assume a different ionic
valence
e. light of a definite wave length is emitted.
21. A photon of light of 450 nm, when
compared to light of wavelength 300 nm, has
(1nm = 10
-9
m)
a. a higher frequency.
b. lower energy.
c. a greater velocity.
d. a shorter wavelength
22. Which set of quantum numbers is possible
for an electron in an atom?
a. n=3, l=0, m
l
=1, m
s
= -½
b. n=2, l=2,m
l
= -2, m
s
= -½
c. n=5, l=2, m
l
=2, m
s
=+½
d. n=4, l=3, m
l
= -4, m
s
= -½
23. A compound consisting of an element
having a low ionization potential and a second
element having a high electron affinity is likely
to have
a. covalent bonds
b. metallic bonds
c. coordinate covalent bonds
d. ionic bonds.
24. According to modern bonding theory the
number of sigma (σ) and pi (π) bonds in the
ethylene molecule H
2
C=CH
2
is
a. l π and 4 σ
b. l π and 1 σ
c. l π and 5 σ
d. 2 π and 4 σ
e. l π and 6 σ
General Chemistry II Sample Test bank Page 3of 18
25. The number of σ bonds in N=N is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
26. The elements in an ionic compound are
held together by
a. electrostatic forces of attraction.
b. van der Waals forces
c. the spin of paired electrons.
d. the formation of hybrid orbitals.
e. an electron pair.
27. In every electrolytic and galvanic (voltaic)
cell the anode is that electrode
a. at which oxidation occurs.
b. which attracts cations.
c. at which electrons are supplied to the
solution.
d. at which reduction occurs.
28. Metal X was plated from a solution
containing cations of X. The passage of 48.25 C
deposited 31 mg of X on the cathode. What is the
mass of X (in grams) per mole of electrons?
a. 47
b. 62
c. 93
d. 186
29. In a galvanic (voltaic) cell in which the
reaction is Cd + Cu
2+
" Cu + Cd
2+
and the ions are at unit concentration (activity),
the cell potential is
Cd " Cd
2+
+ 2e
-
0.4021 V
Cu " Cu
2+
+ 2e
-
- 0.344 V
a. 0.1383 V
b. 0.4021 V
c. 0.344 V
d. 0.7461 V
e. 0.3677 V
30. In which reaction will an increase in total
pressure at constant temperature favor formation
of the products?
a. CaCO
3
(s) !" CaO(s) + CO
2
(g)
b. H
2
(g) + Cl
2
(g) !"
""
" 2HCl(g)
c. 2NO(g) + O
2
(g) !" 2NO
2
(g)
d. COCl
2
(g) !" CO(g) + Cl
2
(g)
Standard Potentials E
o
Mg" Mg
2+
+2e 2.37V
Al " Al
3+
+3e 1.66V
Zn " Zn
2+
+2e 0.76V
Fe"Fe
2+
+2e 0.44V
Cu " Cu
2+
+2e 0.34V
Ag" Ag
+
+ e -0.80V
31. Using only the metals Mg, Al, Zn, Fe, Cu
and Ag, together with their 1 M salt solutions, a
voltaic cell of the highest possible voltage would
be constructed using electrodes of these metals.
a. Mg and Ag
b. Mg and Fe
c. Zn and Cu
d. Al and Ag
e. Mg and Al
32. E = E
o
- 0.059/n log Q (Nernst equation)
[H
+
] = 1.0 M initially, P
02
= 1.0 atm
4e + O
2
(g)+4H
+
(aq)!" 2H
2
O(l) E
o
=1.23V
Based on the information above, which statement
is correct?
a. n = 1, since one mole of oxygen is being
considered.
b. Addition of base should result in an E
value, which is less than 1.23 V.
c. E is independent of the pH of the solution.
d. Q = [H
2
O]
2
[O
2
] [H
+
]
33. The equilibrium constant for the gaseous
reaction C + D !" E + 2F is 3.0 at 50
o
C. In a
2.0 L flask at 50
o
C are placed 1.0 mol of C, 1.0
mol of D, 1.0 mol of E, and 3.0 mol of F.
Initially, the reaction will
a. proceed at equal rates in both directions.
b. proceed more rapidly to form E and F.
c. proceed more rapidly to form C and D.
d. not occur in either direction.
Compound
∆G
o
f
kJ/mol
H
2
O(l) —237
H
2
O(g) —229
34. At 298 K the equilibrium constant for
H
2
(g) + ½ O
2
(g)!" H
2
O(l)
a. is larger than the Keq for
H
2
(g) + ½ O
2
(g)!" H
2
O(g)
b. will have a value of 1 0 at equilibrium.
c. cannot be computed since data on O
2
and
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FAQs of ACS General Chemistry II Practice Exam

What topics are covered in the ACS General Chemistry II Practice Exam?
The ACS General Chemistry II Practice Exam covers a wide range of topics essential for understanding general chemistry. Key areas include acid-base reactions, thermodynamics, chemical kinetics, and equilibrium. Each section is designed to test students' knowledge and application of these concepts through multiple-choice questions. This exam serves as a valuable resource for students aiming to excel in their chemistry courses and prepare effectively for the ACS examination.
How can students benefit from taking the ACS General Chemistry II Practice Exam?
Students can benefit from the ACS General Chemistry II Practice Exam by identifying their strengths and weaknesses in various chemistry topics. The practice exam allows them to familiarize themselves with the format and types of questions they will encounter on the actual ACS exam. Additionally, it helps reinforce their understanding of key concepts, making them more confident and prepared for their assessments. Regular practice with such exams can lead to improved performance and higher scores.
What is the format of the questions in the ACS General Chemistry II Practice Exam?
The questions in the ACS General Chemistry II Practice Exam are primarily multiple-choice, designed to assess students' comprehension of general chemistry principles. Each question typically presents a scenario or problem that requires critical thinking and application of chemistry concepts. This format not only tests knowledge but also helps students practice their problem-solving skills in a timed setting, similar to the actual ACS exam environment.
Who is the intended audience for the ACS General Chemistry II Practice Exam?
The intended audience for the ACS General Chemistry II Practice Exam includes undergraduate students enrolled in general chemistry courses. It is particularly useful for those preparing for the ACS examination, as it aligns with the topics and difficulty level of the actual test. Additionally, educators may use this exam as a teaching tool to assess student understanding and readiness for advanced chemistry studies.

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